I believe all the links captured in the OP reference periods subsequent to WW2…I came across the same article via a Google search along the lines of "musing on when and why ex-US stocks might start out-performing". Without debating the article or its consequences, I wanted to make the point, that the author asserts that over 150 years, the US stock market has outperformed ex-US. However, we have plots here in our thread, maybe 100 pages ago, asserting the contrary... that US and ex-US are roughly even.
Who is he?
So, folks, here is my problem... we are - as goes the adage - entitled to our own opinions, but not to our own facts. So, which is it? Did the US in fact outperform, noticeably, over 150 years? Or didn't it?
You can review the multiple times the question was raised whether we should look before/during the wars, but it ultimately seemed a bit silly to compare performance during periods of complete destruction….
Statistics: Posted by CraigTester — Tue Oct 15, 2024 11:15 pm — Replies 7026 — Views 1705118